Infinity * Zero = Any Number ARGUE HERE

[3D OGRE 1]

it's all relative... you think 1+1=2? hahaha..WRONG

[eagleboy]

Originally Posted by tha Guardians

1^x = 1^1(x) and if x=0 then 1^1(0)=0 so no... 1^x=/=1 if I'm correct.
1^1 = 1
x^0 = 1

Sorry.

You're inaccurate with that statement. 1^0 is actually still 1.

1^x DOES NOT always equal 1, but these factors only work in when (x U Z) and x is -(an odd number)

Example:

1^(-3) = (-1) because (-1)(-1)(-1) = (-)(-)(-) which = (+)(-) which is obviously = to (-).

Actually, for x < 0, 1^x is undefined unless (x U Z).

For those who don't know this, (x U Z) means that x is an integer (but not necessarily a positive one).

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Also, x^0 is not always = to 1. 0^0 = 0 is an easy disproval.

Then I re-read and see your three statements contradict each other.

Originally Posted by tha Guardians

1^x = 1^1(x) and if x=0 then 1^1(0)=0 so no... 1^x=/=1 if I'm correct.
1^1 = 1
x^0 = 1

First of all, 1^x = 1^((1)x), not 1^1(x). You're displacing the x so that it no longer signifies the power, but in essentiality you're saying that 1^x is basically equal to x.

Secondly, and most importantly, your first and third "facts" are saying that 1^0 = 0, yet x^0 = 1. WTF, man; please read what you type before you click the final post.

[darkdieuguerre]

Originally Posted by RandomPscho

For the infinity - infinaty think of it as anything - anything = anything Anything could be anything, but it is defined as a certain something so you are subtracting to random things that will equal another thing which is also undefined

Isn't that a bad analogy? By saying that infinity - infinity can be anything - anything, you basically equate infinity to anything, which is false.

Subtracting infinity from infinity yields a result depending on the "degree" of infinity, for example the limit of (x^2 - x) as x goes to infinity is infinity, but the limit of (x^2 - x^3) as x goes to infinity is negative infinity. Usually, subtracting infinity from infinity will yield infinity, negative infinity, or zero. I'm trying to think of a case if it could be a finite number.

[RandomPscho]

Isn't that a bad analogy? By saying that infinity - infinity can be anything - anything, you basically equate infinity to anything, which is false.

This is the only analogy I could think of.

[tha Guardians]

Sorry Eagle, I hadn't slept in 3 days when I posted that so I basically had no idea what I was really saying, lol. I deleted it, but I still hold my opinion on everything else, so would you please delete your post?

EDIT: I also haven't had a very good education, and I have taught myself every single thing that I know, but it's really hard to learn with just the internet.

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Originally Posted by 3D OGRE 1

it's all relative... you think 1+1=2? hahaha..WRONG

You're right.

1+1=x^2

2+2= (2=1= 2(2) = R2 + 2 = R2,2= ) fish

Numbers are shapes too =)

[darkdieuguerre]

Originally Posted by tha Guardians

Sorry Eagle, I hadn't slept in 3 days when I posted that so I basically had no idea what I was really saying, lol. I deleted it, but I still hold my opinion on everything else, so would you please delete your post?

EDIT: I also haven't had a very good education, and I have taught myself every single thing that I know, but it's really hard to learn with just the internet.

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You're right.

1+1=x^2

2+2= (2=1= 2(2) = R2 + 2 = R2,2= ) fish

Numbers are shapes too =)

What exactly is that supposed to mean? (other than the logical thought of flipping one two, and adjoining it to the second two to have a fish). That's art, not math. Math is beautiful, and pure. Anything that looks ugly isn't math.

And 1+1 is not always equal to 2. 1+1=10 (in binary).

[mangafan1228]

isn't anything times zero zero?

[darkdieuguerre]

No, here's my post about what infinity * 0 can equal.

Originally Posted by darkdieuguerre

Calculus defines that Infinity * 0 can equal anything. Consider the following:

We have a function f(x) and we want to find the area under f(x) from x=a to x=b. (It's known as the integral). If we didn't know how to take the integral, what we could do is draw small rectangles that approximate the area. Of course, there will be some error. If we draw smaller rectangles, we get closer to the area. As the number of rectangles goes to infinity, the area in the rectangles goes to zero, yet we have the area of the function, which is equal to infinity * 0.

The calculator can't calculate infinity * 0 because it doesn't know the context of what it is being used in. To affirm my case, take these two limits:

(x)*(1/x) as x goes to infinity. (The limit is 1)
(x)*(ln x) as x goes to zero (right-hand limit) (The limit is 0)

For the first case, we can insert x*(n/x). The limit will be n. Therefore, infinity * 0 is equal to anything, so it is undefined.

[tha Guardians]

Originally Posted by darkdieuguerre

What exactly is that supposed to mean? (other than the logical thought of flipping one two, and adjoining it to the second two to have a fish). That's art, not math. Math is beautiful, and pure. Anything that looks ugly isn't math.

And 1+1 is not always equal to 2. 1+1=10 (in binary).

I was making fun of Ogre. He's probably not even a real H2 ogre anyways, lol.

[3D OGRE 1]

Originally Posted by tha Guardians

I was making fun of Ogre. He's probably not even a real H2 ogre anyways, lol.

HAHAHA

[ogmsband]

there is no number that is technically infinity numbers will continue forever and if you dont want to write them out long ways you can do scientific notation so i dont believe there is infinty but if there is it will be a number and any number times zero is zero but i dont see how you are coming up with infinity equalling zero but its not but i think it was theorized that there is absolute zero and then infinity and from what i understand infinity never stops i caould be wrong but thats just how i understand it

[GuidoHunter]

PERIODS! DOST THOU USE THEM?!

Read threads before you post in them, too, as everything you stated has been said (and disregarded as useless information) previously.

--Guido

http://andy.mikee385.com

[hafelife]

omg ppl are still posting on this ,it inposibule, read my posting

[waffydude]

Originally Posted by hafelife

omg ppl r swtill posting on tis it inposibule read my posting

Because of your arguments about the bee? wow.

You seem pretty confident in your stance despite not offering any actual values to back you up. "A bee's wings can not produce enough force." Since you know this so so well, give us some numbers. Experimentally obtained. Cite some scientific sources with credibility. Explain why factors such as wind can't account for any differences. Also, even if it is proven that a bee "shouldn't be able to fly," explain why you'd jump to the conclusion that it is the math itself that is wrong. Explain why it couldn't possibly be a different factor associated with it that you're not aware of?

You claim that all of math is wrong, and you expect us to be easily convinced by a vague, unsupported claim. Please tell me this is all a joke.

[sherbtail]

Originally Posted by hafelife

omg ppl r swtill posting on tis it inposibule read my posting

omg ppl r swtilil tiping lik tis, 4 y u shud use propa gramer if u wnt 2 b tken srsly c other topic....

[hafelife]

Originally Posted by sherbtail

omg ppl r swtilil tiping lik tis, 4 y u shud use propa gramer if u wnt 2 b tken srsly c other topic....

there you happy i fix it dont be so retentive

[GuidoHunter]

Originally Posted by hafelife

there you happy i fix it dont be so retentive

You call that fixing?

hafelife (and anyone who chooses to follow in his footsteps): you've been warned and banned for this crap before. Enjoy six days off.

--Guido

http://andy.mikee385.com

[lord_carbo]

Originally Posted by 3D OGRE 1

it's all relative... you think 1+1=2? hahaha..WRONG

Can you prove 1 + 1 != 2?

Wait, you can't. Just try me.

Or, you know, instead of arguing this, I could simply say "HEY LOLZ IF MATH IS SO WRONG AND U CAN PROOOVE 2 = 1 DEN MAYBE UR PROOF 4 IT IS ALSO WRONG SINCE MATH IS SO RONG LIKE THAT."

Or you can ignore that simple logical contradiction and have fun trying.

Originally Posted by darkdieuguerre

And 1+1 is not always equal to 2. 1+1=10 (in binary).

One's to assume base-10 is used in a mathematical problem unless otherwise stated. I don't go around saying "THAT'S WRONG, IT'S EQUAL TO ___ IN BASE-x!!" That's just stupid.

[3D OGRE 1]

Originally Posted by lord_carbo

Can you prove 1 + 1 != 2?

Wait, you can't. Just try me.

Or, you know, instead of arguing this, I could simply say "HEY LOLZ IF MATH IS SO WRONG AND U CAN PROOOVE 2 = 1 DEN MAYBE UR PROOF 4 IT IS ALSO WRONG SINCE MATH IS SO RONG LIKE THAT."

Or you can ignore that simple logical contradiction and have fun trying.


One's to assume base-10 is used in a mathematical problem unless otherwise stated. I don't go around saying "THAT'S WRONG, IT'S EQUAL TO ___ IN BASE-x!!" That's just stupid.

do you even know what you are talking about?

[A2_Sauce]

wow, this is still going