Berkeley, Coherence theory of truth, reality

[Specforces]

Recently in my History of Philosophy class, we discussed the works of Berkeley. Now, of course he is best known for his immaterialism....which is mostly a crock as we know. However, I've been thinking. Is there any difference between sensory perceptions and hallucinations for Berkeley?

For example:

According to the coherence theory of truth, a proposition consists in its being a member some suitably defined body of other propositions. Well let's think about something. I know, when I'm sitting here, that my computer is in my room. When I leave, I don't necessarily know that it's still in my room. The losers that I unfortunately live with on this floor could have came in and destroyed it for all I know. When I return to my room, my computer is still here. The conclusion could be made the coherence theory of truth is used to understand that my computer is still sitting on my desk in my room. Perhaps the coherent nature of my observations leads me to believe my computer is still in my room.

Now, what about hallucinations. Let's say I hallucinate that a snake is in my room on the floor. When I leave, I do not know that its there. However, when I return its still on the floor. Suppose I come to my conclusion the same way I conclude my computer is in my room.


'Esse est percipi' - Berkeley's "To be is to be perceived." Does that ring true in this situation? Are things "to be" just because they are perceived?

The question is......Is there any difference then between my empirical perceptions and my hallucinations? If so, how do I know?

Give me some feedback.

Specforces