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~Bang that beat Harder~
Join Date: Jan 2004
Posts: 2,321
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In my math class a discussion arose concerning this interesting problem. The solution of e^(i*pi) is equal to -1, yet not even my math teacher could explain exactly why this was. All that he could say was that in order to prove this, a derivative of e and the fractional value of pi was involved. I know that it involves a certain trig identity but not much more than that.
After searching through google I found not much more information, although I admit that i did not really google too deeply. I found, though, that a correlation between e and pi has to exist. Does anyone know of any correlation between e and pi? Are there any practical uses for this equation? Discuss. |
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