View Full Version : Does causality apply to itself?
03-10-2004, 09:42 PM
The basic principle of cause and effect. Does it apply to itself? Did someone/something cause causality to come in to effect/being? I was thinking the other day that the existence of an infinite and uncaused God would be possible if there was a time in which causality didn't exist. If God were to always exist, couldn't he have caused causality? This would account for a theistic view of God, namely an infinite, necessary Being.
03-22-2004, 08:27 PM
03-22-2004, 08:34 PM
Cause and effect without the cause and effect? Interesting.
03-24-2004, 06:06 AM
Yeah it is really mind-boggling if you try to think about it.
03-25-2004, 06:28 PM
basicly you are asking the eternal question of "why?"
wich I have no strong opinions on the subject but is one of great interest to me. the only answer i ever came up with is kinda cheasy unless you fully think the subject through.the answer to why is, love.
03-25-2004, 08:00 PM
Why bother? See, this is why I'm not taking philosophy: I have enough problems trying to sort through my friend's emotional and quite convoluted psyche, I don't need to have to sort through my own. Would answering the problem really change anything? This is possibly a very universal question, meaning it's been prevalent in history throughout time. If a farmer during the Dust Bowl or a slave in Egypt couldn't discern the answer, why should we?
03-26-2004, 07:38 AM
This is the critical thinking section, if you want mindless rabble, go to the garbage bin. If you want to offer constructive opinions, by all means...
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