Old 03-10-2004, 10:42 PM   #1
Specforces
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Default Does causality apply to itself?

The basic principle of cause and effect. Does it apply to itself? Did someone/something cause causality to come in to effect/being? I was thinking the other day that the existence of an infinite and uncaused God would be possible if there was a time in which causality didn't exist. If God were to always exist, couldn't he have caused causality? This would account for a theistic view of God, namely an infinite, necessary Being.
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Old 03-22-2004, 09:27 PM   #2
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what?!
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Old 03-22-2004, 09:34 PM   #3
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Cause and effect without the cause and effect? Interesting.
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Old 03-24-2004, 07:06 AM   #4
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Yeah it is really mind-boggling if you try to think about it.
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Old 03-25-2004, 07:28 PM   #5
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basicly you are asking the eternal question of "why?"
wich I have no strong opinions on the subject but is one of great interest to me. the only answer i ever came up with is kinda cheasy unless you fully think the subject through.the answer to why is, love.
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Old 03-25-2004, 09:00 PM   #6
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Why bother? See, this is why I'm not taking philosophy: I have enough problems trying to sort through my friend's emotional and quite convoluted psyche, I don't need to have to sort through my own. Would answering the problem really change anything? This is possibly a very universal question, meaning it's been prevalent in history throughout time. If a farmer during the Dust Bowl or a slave in Egypt couldn't discern the answer, why should we?
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Old 03-26-2004, 08:38 AM   #7
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This is the critical thinking section, if you want mindless rabble, go to the garbage bin. If you want to offer constructive opinions, by all means...

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