[A2P]

I know this a long bump, but I want to point something out.

Bear in mind that every sample is biased in some small way, and the biased sample fallacy is only a fallacy if you fail to point out any potential biases when presenting your data.

So are you saying that if I give a completely biased survey (ex. according to a group of marijuana users, 100% admit to smoking marijuana), as long as I mention the bias, it's no longer a fallacy? I don't understand this.