[Commandersa1]

Originally Posted by dore

Participles can be either adjectival or adverbial. They are just almost never adverbial so that case is generally ignored.

Risen in this case is an adjective. It's a form of a verb but it functions as an adjective. So you can't say "He has risen." Has is either a helping verb or a predicating verb. You could say "He has rose" which would use the past perfect tense of rise as an intransitive verb. "He has risen" makes no sense. In this case, you are using "has" as a transitive verb which requires a direct object, which means you would have to have a noun following "has." Risen is not a noun.

Uhm...How does "He has rose" sound right at all? If you say it out loud, you should be able to understand why it is wrong. You can even type both phrases in google and see which one people use.

http://www.wordchamp.com/lingua2/Ver...&languageID=13

Present Perfect
I have risen
you have risen
he/she/it has risen
we have risen
they have risen

Past
I rose
you rose
he/she/it rose
we rose
they rose