[Fusion4]

The answer is not yes to the second statement, because the existance of black-white is exclusive in the first statement and inclusive in the second statement, so you cannot say that one being false results in the other being true. The presumption of black-white being non-existant still stands, so the answer to the second question is No. Try again Gorgias.

actually i dont think that there is anything wrong with the logic or with the statement, its sort of like a math problem, you must first assume something in order to prove something (never quite liked that idea, but it makes a bit of sense. you prove it exists by first assuming it does, which in itself presents a problem, but if you dont notice it, well then you dont notice it and you get all confused and head-explodey hehe.